PRÁCTICA ORIGINAL · B1 · TEST 1

B1 Preliminary Mock Exam

Reading · Writing · Respuestas razonadas

90 minutos · 32 preguntas objetivas + 2 redacciones · 6 + 2 partes

Este simulacro cubre los papers de Reading (45 min) y Writing (45 min). No incluye Listening ni Speaking y no permite calcular una nota global oficial.

This is original practice material. It follows the current Cambridge English exam format but is not an official Cambridge English paper and is not endorsed by Cambridge University Press & Assessment.

Todos los niveles

Formato oficial

B1 Preliminary (no For Schools): Reading tiene 6 partes y 32 preguntas en 45 minutos. Writing (45 minutos) tiene 2 partes: un email obligatorio de unas 100 palabras y, en Part 2, un artículo o una historia a elegir, también de unas 100 palabras.

Parte	Tarea	Preguntas	Foco	Puntos
Reading 1	Multiple choice — short texts	1–5	Understanding the main message of five real-world notices, messages and short texts.	1 por ítem; 5 total
Reading 2	Matching	6–10	Matching five descriptions of people to eight short texts on a particular topic, showing detailed comprehension.	1 por ítem; 5 total
Reading 3	Multiple choice — long text	11–15	Reading a longer text for detailed comprehension, gist, inference and global meaning, as well as the writer’s attitude and opinion.	1 por ítem; 5 total
Reading 4	Gapped text — sentences	16–20	Understanding how a coherent, well-structured text is formed: reference, linking and the development of ideas.	1 por ítem; 5 total
Reading 5	Multiple-choice cloze	21–26	Choosing the correct vocabulary item: meaning, collocation, fixed phrases, phrasal verbs and prepositions.	1 por ítem; 6 total
Reading 6	Open cloze	27–32	Grammar and vocabulary: completing a shorter text with ONE word in each gap.	1 por ítem; 6 total
Part 1	Email (compulsory)	1	Responding to an email using all four notes	20 (4 scales × 0–5)
Part 2	Article OR story (choose one)	2 or 3	Writing for a reader with an appropriate genre	20 (4 scales × 0–5)

Reading: 32 marks, 1 per question. Writing: each answer is marked out of 20 (Content, Communicative Achievement, Organisation, Language, 0–5 each) for a total of 40. Practice scores only: do not convert them to the Cambridge English Scale.

Formato contrastado con Cambridge English — B1 Preliminary. El material y los descriptores de corrección son de práctica, no oficiales.

Timing sugerido

Part 1: 5 min; Part 2: 8 min; Part 3: 10 min; Part 4: 9 min; Part 5: 5 min; Part 6: 5 min; revisión y transferencia: 3 min. Total: 45 min.

Unos 22 minutos por redacción: 4 para planificar, 15 para escribir y 3 para revisar. Total: 45 min.

Una pausa entre papers debe quedar fuera del tiempo cronometrado.

Paper 1 — Reading

Time allowed: 45 minutes · 6 parts · 32 questions

Part 1 — Multiple choice — short texts

For each question, choose the correct answer (A, B or C).

GREEN VALLEY SUPERMARKET Please return your trolley to the trolley station next to the main door before leaving the car park.
1. Customers are not allowed to take trolleys outside.
2. Customers should put trolleys back in a particular place.
3. Customers must pay to use a trolley.
Mark – my cousin’s wedding is on Saturday, so I can’t do my shift at the shop. If you do it for me, I’ll work your Tuesday afternoon shift. Let me know by tomorrow! Paula
1. Paula can’t work on Tuesday any more.
2. Paula wants Mark to lend her some money.
3. Paula is suggesting that she and Mark change shifts.
FITNESS FIRST GYM Members may bring one guest free of charge every Wednesday. On all other days, guests pay £8 per visit.
1. It is cheaper for a guest to come on a Wednesday.
2. Guests can only use the gym on Wednesdays.
3. Members cannot use the gym on Wednesdays.
To: Year 10 students Subject: Museum trip Because of road works, the coach will now leave at 9.30 instead of 8.30, from the sports hall car park, not the main gate. Remember your packed lunch!
1. The museum trip has been cancelled.
2. The time and meeting point for the trip have changed.
3. Students no longer need to bring lunch.
RIVERSIDE MUSIC FESTIVAL – 12–14 JULY Book online before 1 June and get 20% off! Under-12s go free.
1. The festival will take place on 1 June.
2. Children under 12 must buy tickets online.
3. Buying tickets early saves money.

Part 2 — Matching

For each question, choose the correct answer. The people below all want to do a weekend course. On the opposite page there are descriptions of eight courses. Decide which course would be the most suitable for the people below.

Hannah — Hannah wants to learn to cook healthy meals for her family. She can only go on Sunday mornings, and she wants to take the recipes home with her.
________________________________
Raúl — Raúl is a beginner photographer who has just bought his first camera. He wants a course that takes place outdoors and is suitable for people with no experience.
________________________________
Mei — Mei works in an office and often has backache. She is looking for a relaxing activity on Saturday that will help her body, and she doesn’t want to spend more than £30.
________________________________
Tom and Lisa — Tom and Lisa want an activity they can do together with their two children, aged 9 and 11. They would like to make something they can keep.
________________________________
Kwame — Kwame plays the guitar in a band and wants to write his own songs. He’d like to work with other musicians and record what he creates.
________________________________

A — Picture Perfect

Take better photos with your phone! This Saturday afternoon workshop in our city-centre studio teaches lighting and editing. Bring a charged phone; no camera needed.

B — Family Pottery Day

Adults and children over 8 work side by side to make bowls and cups on the wheel. We fire your pieces in our oven and you collect them the following week to take home.

C — Green Kitchen

A Sunday morning class where you prepare three quick, healthy dishes using fresh vegetables. Everyone receives a printed recipe booklet to take away.

D — Songwriting Lab

Bring your instrument and your ideas. In small groups, musicians write a song together over the weekend and leave with a professional recording of it.

E — Into the Wild Lens

A full day in the national park for people taking their very first steps in photography. Our guides explain basic camera settings as you walk. Cameras not provided.

F — Stretch and Breathe

Gentle yoga on Saturday mornings, designed for people who sit at a desk all week. Exercises to improve your back and posture. £25 for a three-hour session.

G — Chef’s Table

Learn to cook impressive French desserts with a professional chef. Saturday evenings only. All ingredients included. Not suitable for beginners.

H — Weekend Wellness Retreat

Two days of massage, swimming and meditation at a luxury hotel in the countryside. Ideal for tired office workers. £180 including meals.

Part 3 — Multiple choice — long text

For each question, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D).

My year without a smartphone by Nadia Rahman

Last January, I made a decision that surprised all my friends: I gave my smartphone to my sister and bought an old-style phone that could only make calls and send texts. I’d noticed I was checking social media more than a hundred times a day, and I was sleeping badly. I didn’t think I could manage for long, but I wanted to see what would happen.

The first two weeks were hard. Without maps on my phone, I got lost twice on my way to a new client’s office and arrived late. I also felt anxious that I was missing important news. But slowly, something changed. On the bus, instead of looking at a screen, I started reading novels again – I finished twenty-three books that year, more than in the previous five years together.

The biggest difference was in my relationships. Before, when I met friends, we all sat with our phones on the table. Now I had to really listen, and I found that conversations lasted longer and went deeper. Not everyone was happy, though. My cousin complained that I never saw the family photos she posted, and I missed several party invitations that were only sent online.

Would I recommend it? Not to everyone. If your job depends on being online, it simply isn’t realistic. But I think most of us could benefit from a smaller change. I now have a smartphone again, but I keep it in another room in the evenings and I’ve deleted all social media apps. I sleep better, and I still read every day. For me, the experiment was never really about the phone – it was about choosing how to spend my time.

Why did Nadia decide to stop using her smartphone?
1. Her friends suggested it.
2. Her sister needed a phone.
3. She was worried about the effect it was having on her.
4. She had lost her phone.
What problem did Nadia have at the start of the experiment?
1. She couldn’t make phone calls.
2. She had no time to read.
3. She found it difficult to sleep.
4. She had difficulty finding her way to places.
What does Nadia say about meeting friends during the year?
1. She communicated better with them.
2. She saw them less often than before.
3. They also stopped using their phones.
4. They were annoyed with her.
What is Nadia’s opinion about giving up smartphones?
1. Everyone should try it for a year.
2. It isn’t practical for some people.
3. It is only useful for people who read a lot.
4. It is easier than most people think.
What would be the best introduction to this article?
1. A journalist explains how she used a basic phone to save money for her job.
2. A writer describes what she learned after a year without a smartphone.
3. A reader reviews the best old-style phones to buy this year.
4. A woman warns readers never to give up their smartphones.

Part 4 — Gapped text — sentences

Five sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, choose the correct answer. There are three extra sentences which you do not need to use.

The town that learned to swim

The small Dutch town of Vlietdam is surrounded by canals. For years, local people worried about the number of children who could not swim. (16) ____ So in 2019, the town council decided to do something about it.

The plan was simple: every child in the town would learn to swim before the age of ten, and lessons would be free. (17) ____ Instead, the council asked retired lifeguards and sports teachers to help as volunteers.

At first, some parents were not sure about the idea. They felt their children were too young, or that the water in the canals was too cold for lessons. (18) ____ Soon, even the most nervous parents were bringing their children every week.

The project has been a huge success. (19) ____ Teachers at the local school say the children are also more confident in other activities.

Other towns have now started similar programmes. (20) ____ After all, swimming is not just a sport – it is a skill that can save lives.

A. However, the town did not have enough money to pay professional instructors.

B. Because of this, the town built a large new sports centre.

C. Their fears disappeared when the first lessons took place in a warm indoor pool.

D. This was dangerous in a place with so much water.

E. Today, more than 95 per cent of ten-year-olds in Vlietdam can swim.

F. The volunteers were paid a small amount for each lesson.

G. Vlietdam’s mayor hopes the idea will soon spread across the whole country.

H. Many children prefer football to swimming.

________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________

Part 5 — Multiple-choice cloze

For each question, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D).

The man who walked around the world

In 1998, a young man from Canada called Jean Béliveau decided to (21) ____ a very unusual journey. After his business failed, he left his home in Montreal with a small cart and began to walk around the world. His aim was to (22) ____ people’s attention to the problems facing children in poor countries.

The journey (23) ____ eleven years. Jean walked more than 75,000 kilometres through 64 countries. He usually slept in the homes of people he met (24) ____ the way, and he often had to depend on their kindness for food.

Of course, there were difficult moments. He was ill several times and once had to (25) ____ in hospital for a week. But he never thought about giving (26) ____ . When he finally arrived home in 2011, hundreds of people were waiting to welcome him.

1. do
2. put
3. make
4. have
1. pull
2. draw
3. bring
4. hold
1. lasted
2. spent
3. passed
4. continued
1. by
2. in
3. at
4. on
1. keep
2. stay
3. wait
4. live
1. in
2. out
3. up
4. away

Part 6 — Open cloze

For each question, write the correct answer. Write ONE word for each gap.

My first concert

Last month I went to my first big concert. My favourite band was playing in my city, and my parents gave me tickets as a present. I (27) ____ never been to a concert before, so I was really excited.

I went with my best friend, Sofia. We got to the stadium two hours early (28) ____ that we could stand near the stage. There were thousands of people there, and the atmosphere was amazing.

When the band finally came on, everyone started screaming. They played (29) ____ of their famous songs, and we sang along to every one. It was much louder (30) ____ I expected!

After the concert, we waited outside for an hour, hoping to meet the singer. Unfortunately, he didn’t come out, (31) ____ we still had a fantastic evening. I’ll never forget it, and I’m already looking forward (32) ____ the next one.

________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________

Answer sheet

Name: __________________________________ Date: __________________

Record answers 1–32 here. For Parts 1–5 write the letter. For Part 6 write ONE word in CAPITAL LETTERS.

Part 1

Part 2

Part 3

Part 4

Part 5

Part 6

Paper 2 — Writing

Time allowed: 45 minutes · TWO answers

Answer Part 1 (Question 1) and ONE question from Part 2 (Question 2 OR Question 3). Write on separate paper and clearly mark the question number.

Part 1 — Question 1 (compulsory)

Question 1 · Email · Write your email in about 100 words.

Read this email from your English-speaking friend Chris and the notes you have made. From: Chris Subject: Visit next month Hi! I’m so happy I can come and stay with you for a week next month. [Great!] What’s the weather usually like at that time of year? [Tell Chris] I’d love to do something outdoors while I’m there. What do you suggest? [Suggest…] Also, is there anything I can bring for your family? [Explain] See you soon, Chris Write your email to Chris using all the notes.

Part 2 — Question 2

Question 2 · Article — choose Question 2 OR 3 · Write your article in about 100 words.

You see this notice on an English-language website for young people. Articles wanted! A PLACE I LOVE Where is your favourite place in your town or city? What can people do there? Why is it special to you? Write an article answering these questions. We will publish the best articles on our website. Write your article.

Part 2 — Question 3

Question 3 · Story — choose Question 2 OR 3 · Write your story in about 100 words.

Your English teacher has asked you to write a story. Your story must begin with this sentence: When Sam opened the door, he couldn’t believe what he saw. Write your story.

Self-assessment checklist

Part 1: Have I answered ALL four notes in the email?
Is my register right for the reader (informal for a friend)?
Part 2: Does my article answer every question in the notice and have a title? / Does my story start with the given sentence and have a clear ending?
Have I organised my ideas into paragraphs with linking words (however, because, so, while, as soon as)?
Have I used a range of tenses and some more complex sentences correctly?
Have I written about 100 words for each answer and checked spelling and punctuation?

ANSWER KEY & TEACHER'S GUIDE — abrir / cerrar

Teachers: hide this section before printing for students. The student print stylesheet hides this entire section, even when it is open.

Attempt every question before opening the key. These marks are classroom feedback, not an official Cambridge result. Where an alternative is acceptable, it is noted in the explanation.

Part 1 — answers and reasons

B — The notice asks people to return the trolley to the station by the door before they leave. It does not ban trolleys (A) or charge for them (C).
C — Paula offers to swap shifts: if Mark works on Saturday for her, she will do his Tuesday. She is not cancelling (A) and is not asking for money (B).
A — Members can bring one guest free on Wednesdays; on other days guests pay. So Wednesday is the cheapest day for a guest.
B — The trip is not cancelled; it starts an hour later and the meeting place moves. Students must still bring lunch.
C — Tickets bought online before 1 June are 20% cheaper; the festival itself is in July. Children under 12 get in free all the time.

Part 2 — answers and reasons

C — Green Kitchen: healthy dishes, Sunday morning, printed recipe booklet to take away. G is on Saturday evenings and is desserts for non-beginners.
E — Into the Wild Lens: outdoors in the park, for people taking their first steps, bring your own camera. A is indoors and phone-based.
F — Stretch and Breathe: Saturday, for desk workers, helps the back, £25. H suits office workers but costs £180.
B — Family Pottery Day: adults and children over 8 together, and they take their pieces home.
D — Songwriting Lab: musicians write together in groups and leave with a professional recording.

Part 3 — answers and reasons

C — She checked social media ‘more than a hundred times a day’ and was ‘sleeping badly’. Her friends were surprised (not the reason) and she gave the phone away, she did not lose it.
D — Without maps she ‘got lost twice’ and arrived late; she also felt anxious about missing news. Reading increased later.
A — Conversations ‘lasted longer and went deeper’ because she really listened. The negative effects concerned online photos and invitations.
B — ‘If your job depends on being online, it simply isn’t realistic’ – it is not for everyone, but a smaller change could help most people.
B — She describes the whole year, its problems and benefits, and her conclusion that it was about choosing how to spend her time. D is too negative; she did not do it for work (A) or to recommend a product (C).

Part 4 — answers and reasons

D — ‘This’ refers to children not being able to swim; ‘So … the council decided to do something’ follows naturally from the danger.
A — ‘Instead, the council asked … volunteers’ needs a preceding problem: there was not enough money to pay professionals.
C — ‘Their fears’ refers back to the parents’ worries; ‘warm indoor pool’ answers the worry about cold canal water.
E — A concrete result (95 per cent) supports ‘a huge success’; ‘also more confident’ adds a second benefit.
G — Other towns copying the idea links to the hope that it will spread across the whole country.

Part 5 — answers and reasons

C — We ‘make a journey’ (or take/go on). ‘Do’, ‘have’ and ‘put’ do not collocate with journey in this sense.
B — The fixed expression is ‘draw people’s attention to’ something.
A — ‘The journey lasted eleven years’ – last is used for duration. ‘Spent’ needs a person as subject.
D — ‘On the way’ is the fixed phrase meaning during the journey.
B — ‘Stay in hospital’ = remain there as a patient.
C — ‘Give up’ = stop trying. ‘Give in’ means surrender to someone, which does not fit here.

Part 6 — answers and reasons

HAD — Past perfect for an experience before a past moment: I had never been.
SO — ‘So that’ introduces purpose.
ALL — ‘All of their famous songs’ – also accept: most, some, many.
THAN — Comparative ‘louder than’.
BUT — Contrast between not meeting him and still having a fantastic evening. Also accept: yet.
TO — ‘Look forward to’ + noun/-ing.

Writing models — illustrative, not the only valid answers

Question 1 · Email

Hi Chris,

Great news! I’m really happy you can come and stay with us next month. We’re going to have a brilliant time.

The weather is usually warm and sunny in May, but it sometimes rains in the afternoon, so bring a light jacket just in case.

I suggest we go hiking in the mountains near my town. There’s a beautiful lake where we can swim and have a picnic, and the views are amazing.

You don’t need to bring anything for my family, honestly! But my mum loves tea, so if you want, you could bring some from your country.

See you soon, Alex

Teacher comment: All four notes are covered in separate paragraphs (Great!, weather, suggestion, present). Informal register suits a friend; linking (but, so, if) and a range of B1 structures (going to, could, suggest + clause) are used accurately.

Question 2 · Article — choose Question 2 OR 3

My secret garden

Most people walk past the old botanical garden in my city without noticing it, but for me it is the best place in town.

It is quiet and green, with hundreds of different plants and a small pond full of fish. You can walk along the paths, read on a bench under the trees or just watch the birds. Entry is free, which is great for students like me.

It is special to me because I go there to relax before exams. As soon as I arrive, I forget about my problems. Why don’t you visit it too?

Teacher comment: Has a title, an engaging opening and a direct question to the reader. Answers all three questions with relevant detail. Good range of B1 language (without + -ing, as soon as, which clause).

Question 3 · Story — choose Question 2 OR 3

When Sam opened the door, he couldn’t believe what he saw. His living room was full of balloons, and all his friends were standing there, smiling.

“Happy birthday!” they shouted. Sam was so surprised that he couldn’t say anything. He had thought that everybody had forgotten his birthday, because nobody had phoned him all day.

His sister had organised everything. While Sam was at football practice, she had invited his friends and made a huge chocolate cake.

They danced and played games until midnight. It was the best birthday Sam had ever had, and he thanked his sister again and again.

Teacher comment: Starts with the given sentence and follows on logically to a clear ending. Narrative tenses (past simple, past continuous, past perfect) are used accurately; direct speech and time linkers (while, until) make the story engaging.

Writing assessment — 0–5 per scale

B1 Preliminary Writing is assessed on four scales — Content, Communicative Achievement, Organisation and Language — each 0–5, for a maximum of 20 marks per answer. Descriptors below are a classroom adaptation, not the official Cambridge band descriptors.

Mark	Content	Communicative Achievement	Organisation	Language
5	All content is relevant to the task; the target reader is fully informed.	Uses the conventions of the communicative task effectively to hold the reader’s attention and communicate straightforward ideas.	Text is generally well organised and coherent, using a variety of linking words and cohesive devices.	Uses a range of everyday vocabulary appropriately, with occasional inappropriate use of less common lexis; a range of simple and some complex grammatical forms with a good degree of control. Errors do not impede communication.
4	Minor irrelevances and/or omissions may be present; the target reader is on the whole informed.	Uses the conventions of the task to hold the reader’s attention, with minor lapses in tone or format.	Well organised; most ideas linked clearly with a range of connectors.	Good range of everyday language and some complex forms; errors are noticeable but rarely affect meaning.
3	Minor irrelevances and/or omissions may be present; the reader is on the whole informed.	Uses the conventions of the communicative task in generally appropriate ways to communicate straightforward ideas.	Text is connected and coherent, using basic linking words and a limited number of cohesive devices.	Uses everyday vocabulary generally appropriately, while occasionally overusing certain lexis; simple grammatical forms with a good degree of control. While errors are noticeable, meaning can still be determined.
2	A required point is missing or misunderstood; the reader is only partially informed.	Produces text that communicates simple ideas, but conventions of the task are used inconsistently.	Ideas are connected mainly with basic, high-frequency linkers (and, but, because).	Limited vocabulary and grammar; frequent errors sometimes make the message unclear.
1	Irrelevances and misinterpretation of task may be present; the target reader is minimally informed.	Produces text that communicates simple ideas in simple ways.	Text is connected using basic, high-frequency linking words.	Uses basic vocabulary reasonably appropriately; simple grammatical forms with some degree of control. Errors may impede meaning at times.
0	Content is totally irrelevant; the target reader is not informed.	Performance below Band 1.	Performance below Band 1.	Performance below Band 1.

Moderation: assess each scale separately and choose the closest band. Even bands (2, 4) are for scripts that share features of the bands above and below. Short answers are not penalised automatically, but missing content lowers the Content mark.